S
sakhavi
Guest
Hi all - something I've always wondered about; no doubt one of the many geniuses in this community can elucidate me.
I've always heard that low bass and sub-bass sound waves are nondirectional, as opposed to higher frequency waves, which are more or less highly directional. This is counterintuitive to me; as far as I know there's no qualitative difference between a long-wavelength compressive wave and a short-wavelength one (at least, no difference in the way they propagate through space). Why should the spatial origin of one the former matter less than that of the latter? I'm wondering if there's a neurological threshold past which the human brain can't process a bass signal's direction, or if wavelengths that long just exceed typical room dimensions, or....
I've always heard that low bass and sub-bass sound waves are nondirectional, as opposed to higher frequency waves, which are more or less highly directional. This is counterintuitive to me; as far as I know there's no qualitative difference between a long-wavelength compressive wave and a short-wavelength one (at least, no difference in the way they propagate through space). Why should the spatial origin of one the former matter less than that of the latter? I'm wondering if there's a neurological threshold past which the human brain can't process a bass signal's direction, or if wavelengths that long just exceed typical room dimensions, or....